Articulus 4 Article 4 Utrum convenienter mater Dei purganda ad templum accesserit Whether it was fitting that the Mother of God should go to the Temple to be purified? Ad quartum sic proceditur. Videtur quod inconvenienter mater Dei purganda ad templum accesserit. Purgatio enim non videtur esse nisi ab immunditia. Sed in beata virgine nulla fuit immunditia, ut ex supra dictis patet. Ergo non debuit ut purganda ad templum accedere. Objection 1: It would seem that it was unfitting for the Mother of God to go to the Temple to be purified. For purification presupposes uncleanness. But there was no uncleanness in the Blessed Virgin, as stated above (QQ. 27, 28). Therefore she should not have gone to the Temple to be purified. Praeterea, Levit. XII dicitur, mulier quae, suscepto semine, peperit masculum, immunda erit septem diebus, et ideo ei praecipitur quod non ingrediatur sanctuarium, donec impleantur dies purgationis eius. Sed beata virgo peperit masculum sine virili semine. Non ergo debuit venire ad templum purganda. Obj. 2: Further, it is written (Lev 12:2–4): If a woman, having received seed, shall bear a man-child, she shall be unclean seven days; and consequently she is forbidden to enter into the sanctuary until the days of her purification be fulfilled. But the Blessed Virgin brought forth a male child without receiving the seed of man. Therefore she had no need to come to the Temple to be purified. Praeterea, purgatio ab immunditia non fit nisi per gratiam. Sed sacramenta veteris legis gratiam non conferebant, sed ipsa potius secum gratiae auctorem habebat. Non ergo conveniens fuit ut beata virgo ad templum purganda veniret. Obj. 3: Further, purification from uncleanness is accomplished by grace alone. But the sacraments of the Old Law did not confer grace; rather, indeed, did she have the very Author of grace with her. Therefore it was not fitting that the Blessed Virgin should come to the Temple to be purified. Sed contra est auctoritas Scripturae, qua dicitur, Luc. II, quod impleti sunt dies purgationis Mariae secundum legem Moysi. On the contrary is the authority of Scripture, where it is stated (Luke 2:22) that the days of Mary’s purification were accomplished according to the law of Moses. Respondeo dicendum quod, sicut plenitudo gratiae a Christo derivatur in matrem, ita decuit ut mater humilitati filii conformaretur, humilibus enim Deus dat gratiam, ut dicitur Iac. IV. Et ideo, sicut Christus, licet legi non esset obnoxius, voluit tamen circumcisionem et alia legis onera subire, ad demonstrandum humilitatis et obedientiae exemplum, et ut approbaret legem, et ut calumniae occasionem Iudaeis tolleret; propter easdem rationes voluit et matrem suam implere legis observantias, quibus tamen non erat obnoxia. I answer that, As the fullness of grace flowed from Christ on to His Mother, so it was becoming that the mother should be like her Son in humility: for God giveth grace to the humble, as is written James 4:6. And therefore, just as Christ, though not subject to the Law, wished, nevertheless, to submit to circumcision and the other burdens of the Law, in order to give an example of humility and obedience; and in order to show His approval of the Law; and, again, in order to take away from the Jews an excuse for calumniating Him: for the same reasons He wished His Mother also to fulfill the prescriptions of the Law, to which, nevertheless, she was not subject. Ad primum ergo dicendum quod, licet beata virgo nullam haberet immunditiam, voluit tamen purgationis observantiam implere, non propter indigentiam, sed propter legis praeceptum. Et ideo signanter Evangelista dicit quod completi sunt dies purgationis eius secundum legem, ipsa enim secundum se purgatione non indigebat. Reply Obj. 1: Although the Blessed Virgin had no uncleanness, yet she wished to fulfill the observance of purification, not because she needed it, but on account of the precept of the Law. Thus the Evangelist says pointedly that the days of her purification according to the Law were accomplished; for she needed no purification in herself. Ad secundum dicendum quod signanter Moyses videtur fuisse locutus, ad excipiendam ab immunditia matrem Dei, quae non peperit suscepto semine. Et ideo patet quod non obligatur ad impletionem illius praecepti, sed voluntarie purgationis observantiam implevit, ut dictum est. Reply Obj. 2: Moses seems to have chosen his words in order to exclude uncleanness from the Mother of God, who was with child without receiving seed. It is therefore clear that she was not bound to fulfill that precept, but fulfilled the observance of purification of her own accord, as stated above. Ad tertium dicendum quod legalia sacramenta non purgabant ab immunditia culpae, quod fit per gratiam, sed hanc purgationem praefigurabant, purgabant enim purgatione quadam carnali ab immunditia irregularitatis cuiusdam; sicut in secunda parte dictum est. Neutram tamen immunditiam beata virgo contraxerat. Et ideo non indigebat purgari. Reply Obj. 3: The sacraments of the Law did not cleanse from the uncleanness of sin which is accomplished by grace, but they foreshadowed this purification: for they cleansed by a kind of carnal purification, from the uncleanness of a certain irregularity, as stated in the Second Part (I-II, Q. 102, A. 5; Q. 103, A. 2). But the Blessed Virgin contracted neither uncleanness, and consequently did not need to be purified. Quaestio 38 Question 38 De Baptismo Ioannis The Baptism of John Deinde considerandum est de Baptismo quo Christus baptizatus est. Et quia Christus baptizatus est Baptismo Ioannis, primo considerandum est de Baptismo Ioannis in communi; secundo, de baptizatione Christi. Circa primum quaeruntur sex. We now proceed to consider the baptism wherewith Christ was baptized. And since Christ was baptized with the baptism of John, we shall consider (1) the baptism of John in general; (2) the baptizing of Christ. In regard to the former there are six points of inquiry: Primo, utrum conveniens fuerit quod Ioannes baptizaret. (1) Whether it was fitting that John should baptize? Secundo, utrum ille Baptismus fuerit a Deo. (2) Whether that baptism was from God? Tertio, utrum contulerit gratiam (3) Whether it conferred grace? quarto, utrum alii praeter Christum illo Baptismo debuerint baptizari. (4) Whether others besides Christ should have received that baptism? Quinto, utrum Baptismus ille cessare debuerit, Christo baptizato. (5) Whether that baptism should have ceased when Christ was baptized? Sexto, utrum baptizati Baptismo Ioannis essent postea baptizandi Baptismo Christi. (6) Whether those who received John’s baptism had afterwards to receive Christ’s baptism? Articulus 1 Article 1 Utrum fuerit conveniens Ioannem baptizare Whether it was fitting that John should baptize? Ad primum sic proceditur. Videtur quod non fuerit conveniens Ioannem baptizare. Omnis enim ritus sacramentalis ad aliquam pertinet legem. Sed Ioannes non introduxit novam legem. Ergo inconveniens fuit quod novum ritum baptizandi introduceret. Objection 1: It would seem that it was not fitting that John should baptize. For every sacramental rite belongs to some law. But John did not introduce a new law. Therefore it was not fitting that he should introduce the new rite of baptism. Praeterea, Ioannes fuit missus a Deo in testimonium tanquam propheta, secundum illud Luc. I, tu, puer, propheta altissimi vocaberis. Sed prophetae qui fuerunt ante Christum, non introduxerunt novum ritum, sed ad observantiam legalium rituum inducebant, ut patet Malach. ult., mementote legis Moysi, servi mei. Ergo nec Ioannes novum ritum baptizandi inducere debuit. Obj. 2: Further, John was sent by God . . . for a witness (John 1:6, 7) as a prophet; according to Luke 1:76: Thou, child, shalt be called the prophet of the Highest. But the prophets who lived before Christ did not introduce any new rite, but persuaded men to observe the rites of the Law, as is clearly stated Malachi 4:4: Remember the law of Moses My servant. Therefore neither should John have introduced a new rite of baptism. Praeterea, ubi est alicuius rei superfluitas, non est ad illud aliquid addendum. Sed Iudaei excedebant in superfluitate Baptismatum, dicitur enim Marci VII, quod Pharisaei, et omnes Iudaei, nisi crebro lavent manus, non manducant; et a foro, nisi baptizentur, non comedunt; et alia multa quae tradita sunt illis servare, Baptismata calicum et urceorum et aeramentorum et lectorum. Ergo inconveniens fuit quod Ioannes baptizaret. Obj. 3: Further, when there is too much of anything, nothing should be added to it. But the Jews observed a superfluity of baptisms; for it is written (Mark 7:3, 4) that the Pharisees and all the Jews eat not without often washing their hands . . . and when they come from the market, unless they be washed, they eat not; and many other things there are that have been delivered to them to observe, the washings of cups and of pots, and of brazen vessels, and of beds. Therefore it was unfitting that John should baptize. Sed contra est auctoritas Scripturae, Matth. III, ubi, praemissa sanctitate Ioannis, subditur quod exibant ad eum multi, et baptizabantur in Iordane. On the contrary is the authority of Scripture (Matt 3:5, 6), which, after stating the holiness of John, adds many went out to him, and were baptized in the Jordan. Respondeo dicendum quod conveniens fuit Ioannem baptizare, propter quatuor. Primo quidem, quia oportebat Christum a Ioanne baptizari, ut Baptismum consecraret, ut dicit Augustinus, super Ioan. I answer that, It was fitting for John to baptize, for four reasons: first, it was necessary for Christ to be baptized by John, in order that He might sanctify baptism; as Augustine observes, super Joan. (Tract. xiii in Joan.). Secundo, ut Christus manifestaretur. Unde ipse Ioannes Baptista dicit, Ioan. I, ut manifestetur, scilicet Christus, in Israel, propterea veni ego in aqua baptizans. Concurrentibus enim turbis annuntiabat Christum, quod quidem facilius sic factum est quam si per singulos discurrisset, ut Chrysostomus dicit, super Ioan. Second, that Christ might be manifested. Whence John himself says (John 1:31): That He, i.e., Christ, may be made manifest in Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water. For he announced Christ to the crowds that gathered around him; which was thus done much more easily than if he had gone in search of each individual, as Chrysostom observes, commenting on St. John (Hom. x in Matth.). Tertio, ut suo Baptismo assuefaceret homines ad Baptismum Christi. Unde Gregorius dicit, in quadam homilia, quod ideo baptizavit Ioannes ut, praecursionis suae ordinem servans, qui nasciturum dominum nascendo praevenerat, baptizando quoque baptizaturum praeveniret. Third, that by his baptism he might accustom men to the baptism of Christ; wherefore Gregory says in a homily (Hom. vii in Evang.) that therefore did John baptize, that, being consistent with his office of precursor, as he had preceded our Lord in birth, so he might also by baptizing precede Him who was about to baptize. Quarto ut, ad poenitentiam homines inducens, homines praepararet ad digne suscipiendum Baptismum Christi. Unde Beda dicit quod, quantum catechumenis nondum baptizatis prodest doctrina fidei, tantum profuit Baptisma Ioannis ante Baptisma Christi. Quia sicut ille praedicabat poenitentiam, et Baptismum Christi praenuntiabat, et in cognitionem veritatis quae mundo apparuit attrahebat; sic ministri Ecclesiae, qui primo erudiunt, postea peccata eorum redarguunt, deinde in Baptismo Christi remissionem promittunt. Fourth, that by persuading men to do penance, he might prepare men to receive worthily the baptism of Christ. Wherefore Bede says that the baptism of John was as profitable before the baptism of Christ, as instruction in the faith profits the catechumens not yet baptized. For just as he preached penance, and foretold the baptism of Christ, and drew men to the knowledge of the Truth that hath appeared to the world, so do the ministers of the Church, after instructing men, chide them for their sins, and lastly promise them forgiveness in the baptism of Christ. Ad primum ergo dicendum quod Baptismus Ioannis non erat per se sacramentum, sed quasi quoddam sacramentale, disponens ad Baptismum Christi. Et ideo aliqualiter pertinebat ad legem Christi, non autem ad legem Moysi. Reply Obj. 1: The baptism of John was not a sacrament properly so called (per se), but a kind of sacramental, preparatory to the baptism of Christ. Consequently, in a way, it belonged to the law of Christ, but not to the law of Moses. Ad secundum dicendum quod Ioannes non fuit solum propheta, sed plus quam propheta, ut dicitur Matth. XI, fuit enim terminus legis et initium Evangelii. Et ideo magis pertinebat ad eum verbo et opere inducere homines ad legem Christi quam ad observantiam veteris legis. Reply Obj. 2: John was not only a prophet, but more than a prophet, as stated Matt. 11:9: for he was the term of the Law and the beginning of the Gospel. Therefore it was in his province to lead men, both by word and deed, to the law of Christ rather than to the observance of the Old Law. Ad tertium dicendum quod Baptismata illa Pharisaeorum erant inania, utpote ad solam munditiam carnis ordinata. Sed Baptismus Ioannis ordinabatur ad munditiam spiritualem, inducebat enim homines ad poenitentiam, ut dictum est. Reply Obj. 3: Those baptisms of the Pharisees were vain, being ordered merely unto carnal cleanliness. But the baptism of John was ordered unto spiritual cleanliness, since it led men to do penance, as stated above. Articulus 2 Article 2 Utrum baptismus Ioannis fuit a Deo Whether the baptism of John was from God? Ad secundum sic proceditur. Videtur quod Baptismus Ioannis non fuit a Deo. Nihil enim sacramentale quod est a Deo, denominatur ab homine puro, sicut Baptismus novae legis non dicitur Petri vel Pauli, sed Christi. Sed ille Baptismus denominatur a Ioanne, secundum illud Matth. XXI, Baptismus Ioannis e caelo erat? An ex hominibus? Ergo Baptismus Ioannis non fuit a Deo. Objection 1: It would seem that the baptism of John was not from God. For nothing sacramental that is from God is named after a mere man: thus the baptism of the New Law is not named after Peter or Paul, but after Christ. But that baptism is named after John, according to Matt. 21:25: The baptism of John . . . was it from heaven or from men? Therefore the baptism of John was not from God. Praeterea, omnis doctrina de novo a Deo procedens aliquibus signis confirmatur, unde et dominus, Exod. IV, dedit Moysi potestatem signa faciendi, et Heb. II dicitur quod cum fides nostra principium accepisset enuntiari a domino, per eos qui audierunt in nos confirmata est, contestante Deo signis et prodigiis. Sed de Ioanne Baptista dicitur, Ioan. X, Ioannes signum fecit nullum. Ergo videtur quod Baptismus quo baptizavit, non esset a Deo. Obj. 2: Further, every doctrine that proceeds from God anew is confirmed by some signs: thus the Lord (Exod 4) gave Moses the power of working signs; and it is written (Heb 2:3, 4) that our faith having begun to be declared by the Lord, was confirmed unto us by them that heard Him, God also bearing them witness by signs and wonders. But it is written of John the Baptist (John 10:41) that John did no sign. Therefore it seems that the baptism wherewith he baptized was not from God.